Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 24.06.2025 03:59
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
Why do good-looking men date homely women?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Why do people still think Michael Jackson was guilty?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?